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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 03:28

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Did you ever receive genuine remarks from a medium regarding your deceased relative with information that the medium could never normally know?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What can I do when I'm ugly on both outside and inside? What do I do? Cut myself off from the world to make everyones lives better? I'm a monster. I hurt feelings, and I say what was said to me. I feel like I'm nothing but a burden. What do I do?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.